» » SOAL MIKROBIOLOGI LEVEL DASAR

SOAL MIKROBIOLOGI LEVEL DASAR

Advertisement


Advertisement
1. Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?
A) the types of transfer RNA used
B) the rRNA sequences present
C) the deoxyribonucleotides
D) cell wall composition
E) cell membrane composition

Answer : C. the deoxiribonucleotides

2. The archaea known as halophiles
A) require temperatures above 45C to survive.
B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive.
C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota.
D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45C.
E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.

Answer : E. are members of the euryarchaeota and require salt conentrations above 9%

3. The largest known group of archaea is the
A) thermophiles.
B) halophiles.
C) cyanobacteria.
D) methanogens.
E) hyperthermophiles.

Answer : D. methanogens

4. Which of the following types of microbes might be found in the Dead Sea?
A) hyperthermophiles
B) phototrophic bacteria
C) methanogens
D) actinomycetes
E) halophiles

Answer : E. Halophiles


5. Which of the following groups of bacteria lives in environments similar to those that may have existed on the early Earth?
A) deeply branching bacteria
B) cyanobacteria
C) mycoplasmas
D) thermophiles
E) proteobacteria

Answer :A. deeply branching bacteria 

6. Which of the following statements regarding cyanobacteria is FALSE?
A) They are oxygenic.
B) Many perform nitrogen fixation.
C) They contain chlorophyll a.
D) They may have given rise to mitochondria.
E) Some are motile. 

Answer : .D. they may have given rise to the mitochondria

7. Heterocysts are associated with
A) mycoplasmas.
B) alphaproteobacteria.
C) cyanobacteria.
D) myxobacteria.
E) chlamydias.

Answer : C. Cyanobacteria


8. Low G + C Gram-positive bacteria are
A) Mycoplasma.
B) in the phylum Firmicutes.
C) Clostridia.
D) in the phylum Actinobacteria.
E) in the phylum Firmicutes and include Clostridia and Mycoplasma

Answer : .E. in the phylum Firmicutes and includeClostridia and Mycoplasma.

9. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with clostridia?
A) tetanus
B) diarrhea
C) gangrene
D) botulism
E) diphtheria

Answer : E. Diphtheria

10. Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they
A) have no cell walls.
B) are low G + C Gram-positive bacteria.
C) exhibit snapping division.
D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.
E) produce endospores
E) both Bacillus and Clostridium

Answer : A. have no cell walls

11. Which of the following bacterial genera produce(s) endospores?
A) Bacillus
B) Clostridium
C) Lactobacillus
D) both Bacillus and Lactobacillus
E) both Bacillus and Clostridium


12. Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Listeria
C) Lactobacillus
D) Mycobacterium
E) Corynebacterium

Answer : C Lactobacillus

13. Which of the following groups of bacteria is named for its resemblance to fungi?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Actinomyces
C) Clostridium
D) Lactobacillus
E) Staphylococcus



Answer : B) Actinomyces

14. Which of the following bacterial genera is used for the degradation of environmental pollutants?
A) Actinomyces
B) Streptomyces
C) Corynebacterium
D) Rhizobium
E) Nocardia



Answer : E) Nocardia

15. Which of the following is NOT associated with bacteria in the genusStreptomyces?
A) the "musty" smell of soil
B) nutrient recycling in soil
C) antibiotic production
D) microbial antagonism
E) protection of plants against caterpillars

Answer : E. protection of plats agaist catepillars

16. Which of the following characteristics is the basis for distinguishing classes of proteobacteria?
A) outer membrane carbohydrates
B) cell wall structure
C) G + C ratio
D) ribosomal RNA sequences
E) cytoplasmic membrane lipid composition

D. ribosomal RNA sequences



17. Proteobacteria, which are facultative anaerobes commonly found in mammalian intestines, are members of the
A) alphaproteobacteria.
B) betaproteobacteria.
C) gammaproteobacteria.
D) deltaproteobacteria.
E) epsilonproteobacteria.

Answer : C. gammaproteobacteria

18. Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?
A) Bacteroides
B) Rickettsia
C) Chlamydia
D) Helicobacter
E) Treponema

Answer : C. Chlamydia

D. Borrelia
Which of the following genera does NOT include intracellular parasites of other cells?
A) Bdellovibrio
B) Chlamydia
C) Rickettsia
D) Borrelia
E) Legionella
A. Alpha
Unusual cellular extensions called prosthecae are associated with which of the following groups of proteobacteria?
A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) delta
E) epsilon
E) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, andAzospirillum
Which of the following bacterial genera plays an important role in environmental nitrogen cycles?
A) Nitrobacter
B) Rhizobium
C) Azospirillum
D) both Nitrobacter and Rhizobium
E) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, and Azospirillum
C. hyperthermophiles
) Microbes growing in boiling hot mineral springs are generally
A) methanogens.
B) halophiles.
C) hyperthermophiles.
D) purple sulfur bacteria.
E) cyanobacteria.
D. both DNA and protein sequences
Classification of bacteria into different phyla is based on comparisons involving which of the following?
A) DNA sequences
B) cell wall composition
C) protein sequences
D) both DNA and protein sequences
E) DNA and protein sequences, as well as cell wall composition
A. Green phototrophic bacteria
Bacteria that require hydrogen sulfide are generally members of the
A) green phototrophic bacteria.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) halophiles.
D) methanogens.
E) thermophiles
B. they are symbotic withplants and nitrogen fixation
Which of the following statements regarding pseudomonads is FALSE?
A) They are Gram-negative rods.
B) They are symbiotic with plants for nitrogen fixation.
C) They often contaminate food products.
D) They include Pseudomonas and Azotobacter.
E) They cause urinary tract infections.
D. zoogloea
Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for sewage treatment?
A) Burkholderia
B) Thiobacillus
C) Neisseria
D) Zoogloea
E) Nitrosomonas
A. spirochete
A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a
A) spirochete.
B) vibrio.
C) coccobacillus.
D) spirillum.
E) sarcina.
E. viviparity
The "giant" bacterium Epulopiscium reproduces by means of
A) binary fission.
B) snapping division.
C) budding.
D) sexual reproduction.
E) viviparity.
B. they gram stain positive
Which of the following statements regarding mycoplasmas is FALSE?
A) They are low G + C bacteria.
B) They stain Gram-positive.
C) They are pleomorphic.
D) They exhibit a "fried egg" appearance on solid media.
E) They are the smallest free-living cells.
A. endospore production
The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens largely because of their capacity for
A) endospore production.
B) rapid reproduction.
C) oxygen production.
D) biofilm production.
E) high salt tolerance.
E. thermophiles
Prokaryotes of the genus Pyrodictium are
A) endospore formers.
B) intracellular parasites.
C) members of the deeply branching bacteria.
D) halophiles.
E) thermophiles.
C. deeply branching bacteria
) The __________ include the genus Aquifex.
A) archaea
B) proteobacteria
C) deeply branching bacteria
D) high G + C Gram-positive bacteria
E) clostridia
E) an endospore former responsible for food poisoning from rice.
The bacterium Bacillus cereus is
A) an endospore former.
B) a frequent contaminant of milk and meat.
C) responsible for food poisoning from rice.
D) the cause of gastric ulcers.
E) an endospore former responsible for food poisoning from rice.
B. contaminated milk and meat
Listeria is responsible for
A) gastric ulcers.
B) contaminated milk and meat.
C) urinary tract infections.
D) tuberculosis.
E) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.
D. "flesh-eating" bacterial infections
One species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of
A) tuberculosis.
B) urinary tract infections.
C) contaminated milk and meat.
D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.
E) food poisoning from rice.
A. turberculosis
The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for
A) tuberculosis.
B) urinary tract infections.
C) food poisoning from contaminated dairy products.
D) gastric ulcers.
E) food poisoning from rice.
C. gastric ulcers
The genus Helicobacter is responsible for
A) food poisoning from contaminated meat.
B) food poisoning from rice.
C) gastric ulcers.
D) tuberculosis.
E) urinary tract infections
B. intracellulaar parasites
Members of the genus Chlamydia are
A) thermophiles.
B) intracellular parasites.
C) classified with the deeply branching bacteria.
D) endospore-formers.
E) Gram-positive bacteria.
E. urinary tract infections
Pseudomonas species are occasional causes of
A) food poisoning from contaminated meat.
B) food poisoning from rice.
C) food poisoning from dairy products.
D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infection.
E) urinary tract infections.
False
The majority of archaea are extremophiles
True or false
False
True or false
When an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells
True
True or false
Members of the Streptomyces are environmentally important because they can degrade a wide range of compounds including lignin from trees, chitin and keratin from animals, and latex.
False
True or false
Halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations.
False
True or false
Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a and carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis.
true
true or false
Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped.
true
Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as pneumonia and bacteremia.
True or false
false
Mycoplasmas are named for the large quantities of mycolic acid in their cell walls.
true or false
true
Most of the methane produced by methanogens is oxidized by other types of bacteria before it affects the Earth's climate.
True or false
True
Myxobacteria exhibit traits, such as cooperation and differentiation, that are not normally observed in prokaryotes.
True or false
vegetative
A bacterial cell that produces an endospore is called a(n) ___________ cell.
halophiles
Bacteria that can colonize and spoil meats preserved with high concentrations of salt are called __________.
cyanobacteria
Bacteria that use chlorophyll a and engage in oxygenic photosynthesis, just like plants and algae, are called __________. 
akinetes
Thick-walled spores produced by some species of cyanobacteria are called ___________.
tetrads
Regular clusters of cocci that resemble a square are called __________.
genetic
The G+C ratio is a ______ determination used in classifying the different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria.
actinomycetes
The ___________ are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that form branching filaments resembling those of fungi.
Streptococcus
The genus of pathogenic cocci responsible for a wide range of human disease and whose members grow in chains is ___________. (Be sure your answer is italicized.)
prosthecae
Unusual structures associated with the alphaproteobacteria that consist of an extension of the cytoplasm surrounded by the cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall are called __________.
fixation
The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen __________.
Mycobacterium
Slow-growing bacteria in the genus ___________ are able to withstand long exposure to air because of the presence of mycolic acid in their cell wall structure. (Be sure your answer is italicized.)
galls
Plant tumors caused by Agrobacterium infections are called ___________.
bacteroids
The ___________ are a group of Gram-negative bacteria that include obligate anaerobes normally found in the intestinal tracts of animals and humans.
elementary
The infective stage of chlamydia is called the __________ body.
B. number of microbial cells
1) In microbiology, the term growth usually refers to an increase in
A) a microbe's size.
B) the number of microbial cells.
C) the amount of ATP produced.
D) the number and size of microbial cells.
E) the number and size of microbial cells and the amount of ATP produced.
A. photoheterotroph
A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a
A) photoheterotroph.
B) lithoautotroph.
C) photoautotroph.
D) chemoheterotroph.
E) chemoautotroph.
d. obligated aerobic
A(n) __________ organism is one that requires oxygen for growth.
A) anaerobic
B) facultative anaerobic
C) aerotolerant
D) obligate aerobic
E) both aerotolerant and anaerobic
A. phototroph
An aquatic microbe that can grow only at the surface of the water is probably which of the following?
A) a phototroph
B) a heterotroph
C) a chemotroph
D) a lithotroph
E) an anaerobe
C. peroxide anion
Which of the following forms of oxygen is detoxified by the enzyme catalase?
A) singlet oxygen
B) hydroxyl radical
C) peroxide anion
D) superoxide radical
E) molecular oxygen
D. protease
All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT
A) carotenoids.
B) superoxide dismutase.
C) peroxidase.
D) protease.
E) catalase.
E. obligate anaerobe
A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)
A) obligate aerobe.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) microaerophile.
E) obligate anaerobe.
E) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis
Nitrogen is a growth limiting nutrient for many organisms because
A) it is necessary for the biosynthesis of amino acids.
B) it is required for synthesis of nucleotides.
C) it is required for lipid synthesis.
D) only a small number of bacteria are able to extract it from the atmosphere.
E) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.
A. heme
Which of the following growth factors would NOT be required by microbes which do not utilize electron transport chains?
A) heme.
B) selenium.
C) NADH.
D) vitamins.
E) amino acids.
E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.
At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,
A) proteins are permanently denatured.
B) membranes become too fluid for proper function.
C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken.
D) hydrogen bonds are broken, and proteins are permanently denatured.
E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.
C) mesophiles.
Human pathogens are classified as
A) thermoduric.
B) thermophiles.
C) mesophiles.
D) hyperthermophiles.
E) psychrophiles.
A. hydrostatic pressure
The term barophile refers to which of the following growth requirements?
A) hydrostatic pressure
B) temperature
C) nitrogen source
D) pH
E) osmotic pressure
C) an acidophile
Which of the following organisms would be most likely to contaminate a jar of pickles?
A) a neutrophile
B) a thermophile
C) an acidophile
D) an obligate anaerobe
E) a mesophile
E. either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.
Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are
A) obligate aerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) aerotolerant anaerobes.
D) obligate anaerobes.
E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.
C. enriched media
A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?
A) transport media
B) reducing media
C) enriched media
D) differential media
E) selective media
A. in a reducing medium
Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory
A) in a reducing medium.
B) in a candle jar.
C) in standard Petri plates.
D) on blood agar plates.
E) on blood agar plates in a candle jar.
D. enrichment culture
Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the following refers to the process she should use?
A) cell culture
B) chemostat
C) quorum sensing
D) enrichment culture
E) nitrogen fixation
B. 7 hours
A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium with 100 bacterial cells/ml. If the generation time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase, how long will it be before the culture contains more than 10,000 cells/ml?
A) 24 hours
B) 7 hours
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours
E) 10 hours
D. inoculation of cell cultures
An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful?
A) culturing on blood agar plates
B) inoculation of EMB plates
C) incubation in a candle jar
D) inoculation of cell cultures
E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth
microscopic counts
Which of the following measurement techniques would be useful to quantify a species of bacteria that is difficult to culture?
A) membrane filtration
B) viable plate counts
C) MPN
D) microscopic counts
E) metabolic activity
d. both a differntial and selective
MacConkey agar plates represent __________ medium.
A) a minimal
B) a selective
C) a differential
D) both a differential and a selective
E) both a minimal and a selective
A) a glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope.
A Petroff-Hauser counting chamber is
A) a glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope.
B) a device that counts cells as they interrupt an electrical current.
C) a device that measures the amount of light that passes through a culture.
D) an apparatus that traps bacterial cells on a membrane filter where they can be counted.
E) a device used to count numbers of bacterial colonies on a Petri plate.
Answer:  A
B. exponential growth
Another term for the logarithmic growth of bacterial cells is
A) generation time.
B) exponential growth.
C) arithmetic growth.
D) absorbance.
E) binary fission.
E. Chemostat
A device that removes wastes and adds fresh medium to bacterial cultures in order to prolong the log phase of a culture is called a(n)
A) Coulter counter.
B) cytometer.
C) spectrophotometer.
D) pellicle.
E) chemostat.
C. 30,000
A specimen of urine is determined to contain 30 bacterial cells per microliter. How many cells would be present in a milliliter?
A) 3
B) 300
C) 30,000
D) 3,000
E) 30 million
B. turbidity
Which of the following is NOT a direct method for measuring the number of microbes in a sample?
A) viable plate counts
B) turbidity
C) Coulter counter
D) MPN
E) membrane filtration
B. log phase
During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) the susceptibility is the same for all phases
B. osmotic pressure
The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the following concepts?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) osmotic pressure
C) pH
D) hydrostatic pressure
E) quorum sensing
E. the lungs
A clinical sample labeled as "sputum" was collected from
A) the skin.
B) the blood.
C) the central nervous system.
D) a piece of tissue.
E) the lungs.
C. steak plate technique
The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to dilute specimens is called
A) the pour-plate technique.
B) serial dilution.
C) the streak-plate technique.
D) transport media.
E) enrichment culturing.
D. biofilms
__________ are complex communities of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces.
A) Aggregates
B) Colonies
C) Isolates
D) Biofilms
E) Media
b. that produces one colony
A colony-forming unit is the number of cells
A) in a colony.
B) that produces one colony.
C) in a particular specimen.
D) that is in exponential phase in a culture.
E) that can be placed on a Petri plate.
A. hydrogen peroxide
All of the following ingredients might be found in complex media EXCEPT
A) hydrogen peroxide.
B) yeast extract.
C) blood.
D) soy extract.
E) milk proteins.
D. reducing media
Sodium thioglycollate is associated with which of the following types of media?
A) transport media
B) differential media
C) complex media
D) reducing media
E) selective media
C. metabolic activity
Which of the following quantification techniques can distinguish living cells from dead cells in a culture?
A) microscopic counts
B) dry weight
C) metabolic activity
D) a Coulter counter
E) turbidity
D. stationary phase
during the __________ of growth, new cells are being produced at the same rate as other cells are dying.
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) death phase
D) stationary phase
E) intermediate phase
A. death phase
During the __________ of growth, cells are dying faster than new cells are being produced.
A) death phase
B) lag phase
C) log phase
D) stationary phase
E) longitudinal phase
C. lag phase
When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the
A) stationary phase.
B) log phase.
C) lag phase.
D) death phase.
E) exponential phase.
B. log phase
Metabolic activity is at maximum level in the __________ of growth.
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) death phase
D) stationary phase
E) intermediate phase
C. log phase
Cells are rapidly growing and dividing during the __________ of growth.
A) death phase
B) lag phase
C) log phase
D) stationary phase
E) indeterminate phase
B. salt concentrations
An organism that tolerates high __________ is called a halophile.
A) hydrostatic pressure
B) salt concentrations
C) pH
D) carbon dioxide levels
E) oxygen levels
A. carbon dioxide levels
A capnophile is a microorganism that thrives in conditions of high __________.
A) carbon dioxide levels
B) hydrostatic pressure
C) oxygen levels
D) pH
E) salt concentration
C. hydrostatic pressure
A microorganism found living under conditions of high __________ is a barophile.
A) pH values
B) oxygen concentrations
C) hydrostatic pressure
D) carbon dioxide levels
E) salt concentrations
d. oxygen levels
Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low
A) carbon dioxide levels.
B) pH values.
C) hydrostatic pressure.
D) oxygen levels.
E) salt concentrations.
E. pH
An acidophile thrives under conditions of low
A) carbon dioxide levels.
B) salt concentrations.
C) oxygen levels.
D) hydrostatic pressure.
E) pH.
FALSE
Obligate anaerobes have enzymes such as superoxide dismutase to protect them from the damaging effects of oxygen.
TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
Nitrogen fixation is a process that occurs in all bacteria.
TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods.
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
An obligate halophile will burst if placed in freshwater.
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their metabolism by freezing.
TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
Quorum sensing is a process by which bacteria respond to the density of other bacteria in their environment.
Answer:  TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
An obligate anaerobe can be cultured in a candle jar.
Answer:  TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria.
Answer:  FALSE OR TRUE
TRUE
A selective medium can be formulated either by including inhibitory chemical substances or by leaving out a single crucial nutrient.
Answer:  TRUE OR FLASE
TRUE
In spectrophotometry, 40% light transmission is the same thing as 60% absorbance of light.
Answer:  TRUE OR FALSE
fixation
The conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen __________.
chemoheterotrophs
Organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy are called __________.
superoxide
The __________ radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O2 during electron transport in aerobes.
optimum
The __________ growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.
mesophiles
Bacteria that thrive at human body temperatures are classified as __________.
11.5
Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH __________. (Be sure your answer is a numeral.)
crenation
Cells that are exposed to hypertonic environments will exhibit __________.
inoculum
A(n) __________ is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth medium.
colony
A pure culture is composed of cells that arise from a single __________.
agar
A gelling agent derived from algae that is useful for creating solid growth media is called __________.
lag
A sample placed into fresh medium is typically initially in the __________ phase of microbial growth.
number
A growth curve plots the __________ of organisms in a growing population over time.
cytometry
Flow __________ is a method of counting cells that have been stained or tagged with fluorescent dyes.
pellicle
A film of cells at the surface of a broth is called a(n) __________.
spectrophotometer
A(n) __________ can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture.
C. prions
Standard methods of sterilization are not effective in inactivating
A) viruses.
B) bacterial cells.
C) prions.
D) bacterial endospores.
E) fungi.
D) Disinfectants are used on inanimate surfaces.
Which of the following statements is true of disinfectants?
A) Disinfectants are effective in destroying endospores.
B) Disinfectants are used on living tissue.
C) Disinfectants are used for sterilization.
D) Disinfectants are used on inanimate surfaces.
E) Disinfectants are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes).
E) It is not an effective means of evaluating the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.
Which of the following statements concerning microbial death is FALSE?
A) It can be used to evaluate the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.
B) It is constant over time of exposure to an antimicrobial agent.
C) It is the permanent loss of a microbe's reproductive ability.
D) It is the permanent loss of a microbe's ability to reproduce and can be used to evaluate antimicrobial agents.
E) It is not an effective means of evaluating the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.
A.A public toilet is treated with disinfectants
Which of the following is an example of sanitization?
A) A public toilet is treated with disinfectants.
B) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery.
C) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice.
D) An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar.
E) A nurse prepares an injection site with an alcohol swab.
E. free of pathogens
Aseptic means
A) sterile.
B) free of all microbes.
C) clean.
D) sanitized.
E) free of pathogens.
D. autoclaving
Which of the following would NOT be bacteriostatic?
A) desiccation
B) freezing below 0°C
C) lyophilization
D) autoclaving
E) refrigeration of mesophiles
E. protein synthesis
Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect
A) the cell wall.
B) the cell membrane.
C) the viral envelope.
D) endospores.
E) protein synthesis.
A. enveloped viruses
Seventy percent alcohol is effective against
A) enveloped viruses.
B) nonenveloped viruses.
C) bacterial endospores.
D) protozoan cysts.
E) prions.
b. low-level germicide
An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n)
A) high-level germicide.
B) low-level germicide.
C) intermediate-level germicide.
D) degerming agent only.
E) germistatic agent only.
C. lyophilization
Which of the following is NOT an effective means of sterilization?
A) ionizing radiation
B) incineration
C) lyophilization
D) autoclaving
E) dry heat
B. heating at 72°C for 15 seconds
Which of the following describes flash pasteurization?
A) heating at 63°C for 30 minutes
B) heating at 72°C for 15 seconds
C) heating at 72°C for 15 minutes
D) heating at 134°C for one second
E) passing liquid through steam at 140°C
D. UHT sterilization
The dairy creamer used in restaurants is usually sterilized by
A) filtration.
B) ionizing radiation.
C) lyophilization.
D) UHT sterilization.
E) autoclaving.
E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses.
Boiling water for 10 minutes is effective in ridding it of
A) actively growing bacteria.
B) enveloped viruses.
C) bacterial endospores.
D) protozoan cysts.
E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses.
C) varying thicknesses of membrane filters used
Which of the following is NOT a feature associated with filtration?
A) nitrocellulose or plastic membrane filters
B) sterilization of heat-sensitive materials
C) varying thicknesses of membrane filters used
D) use of HEPA filters to filter air
E) ability of some filters to trap viruses and proteins
E. Brucella melitensis
Which of the following is a target of pasteurization?
A) Bacillus stearothermophilus
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Brucella melitensis
A. ultraviolet rays
Which of the following types of radiation is nonionizing and has the shortest wavelength?
A) ultraviolet light
B) infrared radiation
C) microwaves
D) X rays
E) gamma rays
E. gamma rays
Which of the following is used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables?
A) X rays
B) ultraviolet light
C) electron beams
D) microwaves
E) gamma rays
D. both HEPA fileters and ultraviolet light
Which of the following can be used to disinfect air?
A) HEPA filters
B) ethylene oxide
C) ultraviolet light
D) both HEPA filters and ultraviolet light
E) both ethylene oxide and ultraviolet light
B. phenolics
Lysol is an example of which of the following groups of chemical antimicrobial agents?
A) halogens
B) phenolics
C) alcohols
D) aldehydes
E) surfactants
D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2
Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level?
A) E. coli, BSL-3
B) anthrax, BSL-1
C) Ebola, BSL-2
D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2
E) tuberculosis, BSL-1
C. halogens
Betadine is an example of which of the following groups of antimicrobial agents?
A) alcohols
B) heavy metals
C) halogens
D) phenolics
E) surfactants
D. they function by cross-linking proteind
Which of the following statements about quaternary ammonium compounds is FALSE?
A) They are a type of detergent.
B) Zephiran is an example of a quat.
C) They are not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) They function by cross-linking proteins.
E) They are harmless to humans except at high concentrations.
C. peracetic acid
Which of the following is a sterilizing agent?
A) ozone
B) hydrogen peroxide
C) peracetic acid
D) dish soap
E) ozone and hydrogen peroxide
E. silver nitrate
Which of the following was used in the past to prevent the transmission of gonorrhea from an infected mother to her newborn?
A) hydrogen peroxide
B) beta-propiolactone
C) thimerosal
D) hexachlorophene
E) silver nitrate
A. ethylene oxide
Which of the following is used to sterilize items that should not, or cannot, be exposed to heat or water?
A) ethylene oxide
B) formaldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) calcium hypochlorite
E) triclosan
A. they are used only to preserve dead tissues
Which of the following statements about aldehydes is FALSE?
A) They are used only to preserve dead tissues.
B) They denature proteins.
C) Some aldehydes can sterilize after long periods of exposure.
D) They are usually hazardous to humans.
E) They are used in aqueous solutions.
B. antimicrobials
Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are
A) aldehydes.
B) antimicrobials.
C) halogens.
D) quats.
E) triclosans.
B. germicide
A chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes in general is a(n)
A) sanitizer.
B) germicide.
C) disinfectant.
D) fungicide.
E) antiseptic.
D. it only arrests growth of vegetative cells.
Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial agent?
A) it is inexpensive.
B) it is stable during storage.
C) it is harmless to humans.
D) it only arrests growth of vegetative cells.
E) it acts quickly.
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
The endospores of which of the following microbes are used to measure the effectiveness of autoclave sterilization?
A) Clostridium botulinum
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Mycobacterium bovis
b. filtration
A scientist develops a new medication that is a protein compound and that must be administered by injection. Which of the following would be the most effective and safest means of preparing a sterile solution of the new medication?
A) autoclaving
B) filtration
C) dilution with alcohol
D) lyophilization
E) ultraviolet irradiation
A. use-dilution test
Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) use-dilution test
B) microbial death rate
C) in-use test
D) thermal death point
E) phenol coefficient
C. ethylene oxide
Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress?
A) autoclaving
B) formaldehyde
C) ethylene oxide
D) heavy metals
E) radiation
E. both alcohol and phenolics
Disinfectants that damage membranes include
A) alcohol.
B) phenolics.
C) iodine.
D) hydrogen peroxide.
E) both alcohol and phenolics.
B. ethylene oxide
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans?
A) 70% alcohol
B) ethylene oxide
C) quats
D) chloramines
E) iodophors
B. sterilizing method
The process of filtration is a(n)
A) disinfectant method.
B) sterilizing method.
C) sanitization method.
D) antiseptic procedure.
E) ineffective method for removing microbes.
D. disinfecting and sterlizing agent
Hydrogen peroxide is a(n)
A) sterilizing agent.
B) disinfecting agent.
C) antiseptic.
D) disinfecting and sterilizing agent.
E) ineffective method of disinfecting.
A. sterilization
The process of incineration is used for
A) sterilization.
B) disinfection.
C) sanitization.
D) both disinfection and sanitization.
E) degerming.
E.  both antisepsis and disinfection.
Alcohols are used for
A) disinfection.
B) sterilization.
C) antisepsis.
D) both sterilization and disinfection.
E) both antisepsis and disinfection.
B. disinfection
The chemical agents known as "quats" are used for
A) antisepsis.
B) disinfection.
C) sterilization.
D) quantifying antimicrobial activity.
E) neither antisepsis nor disinfection.
B. sterilization
The compound ethylene oxide is used in
A) sanitization.
B) sterilization.
C) antisepsis.
D) degerming.
E) disinfection.
E) both disinfection and sterilization.
Glutaraldehyde is used for
A) antisepsis.
B) disinfection.
C) sterilization
D) sanitization.
E) both disinfection and sterilization.
A. disinfection
__________ may be achieved using chlorine dioxide.
A) Disinfection
B) Sterilization
C) Degerming
D) Antisepsis
E) Both antisepsis and degerming
A. sterilization
Gamma irradiation is a process for
A) sterilization.
B) disinfection.
C) antisepsis.
D) degerming.
E) both antisepsis and disinfection.
E) Both disinfection and sanitization
__________ can be accomplished using boiling water.
A) Sanitization
B) Disinfection
C) Sterilization
D) Antisepsis
E) Both disinfection and sanitization
true
An environment may contain some microbes and still be considered sterile.
true
Some viruses are inactivated by the same chemical or physical agents that damage cytoplasmic membranes.
false
UV light has the most effect on protein structure.
false
Antimicrobial agents usually work best at high temperatures and pH levels.
false
The phenol coefficient is one of the most widely used measurements of an antimicrobial agent's effectiveness.
false
No chemical or antimicrobial agents inactivate prions.
false
The decimal reduction time is the time required to kill all the microbes in a given sample.
true
Slow freezing is more damaging to microbial cells than quick freezing.
false
Hydrogen peroxide is an effective antiseptic.
true
By themselves, soaps have only degerming activity, not antimicrobial activity.
lyophilization
The process of freeze-drying microbes to preserve them is __________. 
phenolics
Natural antiseptics such as pine or clove oil are examples of antimicrobial compounds called __________.
iodophor
A(n) __________ is an iodine-containing organic compound found in such antiseptics as Betadine.
aldehydes
Disinfectants known as __________ have the chemical group -CHO, which reacts with and damages both proteins and nucleic acids.
thermal
The lowest temperature that kills all cells in a broth in 10 minutes is knows as the __________ death point.
less
The amount of time needed to sterilize materials using moist heat is __________ than the time needed to sterilize using dry heat.
autoclave
A(n) __________ is an instrument that sterilizes by exposing materials to steam under pressure.
contaiment
BSL-4 is the appropriate __________ level when handling highly contagious deadly microbes.
less
Ultraviolet light penetrates __________ effectively than gamma rays.
phenolic
Triclosan is a(n) __________ antimicrobial compound that has been incorporated into consumer items such as garbage bags and diapers.
halogens
Elements such as iodine, chlorine, and bromine are examples of __________, which are the basis for many effective antimicrobial agents.
proteins
Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage __________, interfering with microbial metabolism.
osmotic
The use of high levels of salt or sugar in the preservation of food relies on the phenomenon of __________ pressure.
pasteurization
The process of heating milk or fruit juice to levels that kill any pathogenic microbes present is known as __________.
endospores
Sterilization procedures generally focus on inactivating or eliminating bacterial __________.
E) Streptomyces.
A large percentage of antibiotics and semisynthetic drugs are produced by members of the genus
A) Cephalosporium.
B) Penicillium.
C) Bacillus.
D) Mycobacterium.
E) Streptomyces.
A. cells become more suseptiable to osmotic pressure
An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?
A) Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.
B) Cells cannot attach to their hosts.
C) Ribosomes lose their function.
D) The sterols in the cell wall become nonfunctional.
E) The replication of cells, including cancer cells, slows down.
B. bacterial cells
Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?
A) animal cells
B) bacterial cells
C) fungal cells
D) virus-infected cells
E) both animal and fungal cells
C) They have a broader spectrum of action
Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?
A) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects.
B) They work faster.
C) They have a broader spectrum of action.
D) They must be administered intravenously.
E) They are not readily absorbed, so they persist longer.
D) isoniazid
Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid?
A) vancomycin
B) penicillin
C) methicillin
D) isoniazid
E) bacitracin
B. erythromycin
Which of the following antibiotics disrupts cytoplasmic membrane function?
A) streptomycin
B) erythromycin
C) tetracycline
D) penicillin
E) amphotericin B
B. interference with alanine-alanine bridges
Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?
A) the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit
B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges
C) the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit
D) movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next
E) the tRNA docking site
E. waksman
Which scientist coined the term antibiotic?
A) Fleming
B) Domagk
C) Kirby
D) Ehrlich
E) Waksman
D. antiviral
The most limited group of antimicrobial agents is the __________ drugs.
A) antibacterial
B) antifungal
C) anthelmintic
D) antiviral
E) antiprotozoan
C. diffusion susceptanility test
Another term for the Kirby-Bauer test is the
A) minimum inhibitory concentration test.
B) E test.
C) diffusion susceptibility test.
D) minimum bactericidal concentration test.
E) broth dilution test.
B) The larger the zone, the more resistant the organism is.
Which of the following statements about the zone of inhibition is FALSE?
A) It is measured as a diameter.
B) The larger the zone, the more resistant the organism is.
C) It is a clearing zone with no growth.
D) It is a result of diffusion of the drug out of the paper disk.
E) It is measured after incubation.
D.. tetracyclines
Which of the following groups of drugs can become incorporated into the bones and teeth of a fetus?
A) beta-lactams
B) aminoglycosides
C) quinolones
D) tetracyclines
E) sulfonamides
E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush
Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?
A) anaphylactic shock
B) black hairy tongue
C) pseudomembranous colitis
D) thrush
E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush
C) Resistant cells grow more efficiently and quickly than susceptible cells.
Which of the following statements concerning development of antibiotic resistance is FALSE?
A) It is often mediated by R-plasmids.
B) Resistant cells are normally in the minority in a bacterial population.
C) Resistant cells grow more efficiently and quickly than susceptible cells.
D) New resistance genes can be gained through transformation, transduction, or conjugation.
E) Resistance can occur through mutation of existing bacterial genes.
Answer: 
B) inactivation of the drug
β-lactamase production is an example of which of the following types of resistance?
A) alteration of the target of the drug
B) inactivation of the drug
C) change in the permeability of the drug
D) overproduction of an enzyme in a key metabolic pathway
E) removal of the drug via a pump
E) are an alternative to the use of chemotherapy involving microbial antagonism.
Probiotics
A) involve microbial antagonism.
B) are an alternative to the use of chemotherapy.
C) involve the use of extracts from microorganisms.
D) is a term for resistance to antibiotics.
E) are an alternative to the use of chemotherapy involving microbial antagonism.
A) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits.
Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by
A) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits.
B) blocking the secretion of cell wall molecules from the cytoplasm.
C) preventing the formation of alanine-alanine bridges.
D) disrupting the formation of the mycolic acid layer of the cell wall.
E) preventing the formation of β-lactamases.
B. inhibiting protein synthesis
Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by
A) inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall.
B) inhibiting protein synthesis.
C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.
D) inhibiting metabolic pathways.
E) disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane.
E) both fluconazole and turbinafine
Which of the following antifungals works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
A) fluconazole
B) turbinafine
C) amphotericin B
D) nystatin
E) both fluconazole and turbinafine
E) were the first widely used antimetabolic antimicrobial and indirectly inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
Sulfonamides
A) are antimetabolic drugs.
B) were the first widely used antimicrobial drugs.
C) indirectly inhibit the synthesis of nucleic acids.
D) are no longer widely used.
E) were the first widely used antimetabolic antimicrobial and indirectly inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
B) the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid
Which of the following pathways is specifically inhibited by sulfonamides?
A) the conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to PABA
B) the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid
C) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid
D) the conversion of PABA to tetrahydrofolic acid
E) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to PABA
A. quinolones
Which of the following drugs inhibits nucleic acid synthesis specifically in prokaryotes?
A) quinolones
B) actinomycin
C) rifampin
D) tetracycline
E) 5-fluorocytosi
C.) synergism
The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and clavulanic acid, a β-lactamase inhibitor, is known as
A) cross resistance.
B) antimetabolism.
C) synergism.
D) selective toxicity.
E) chemotherapy
B. porins
Alterations in the structure of which of the following are an important aspect of Gram-negative bacterial resistance to antimicrobial drugs?
A) plasmids
B) porins
C) mitochondria
D) cytoplasmic membrane
E) ribosomes
D) these diseases are caused by viruses.
It is inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or flu because
A) the microbes involved can develop resistance rapidly.
B) these diseases are transmitted by endospores, which are hard to kill.
C) these diseases exhibit cross resistance.
D) these diseases are caused by viruses.
E) these diseases can act synergistically with each other.
A) Domagk
Who discovered the first widely available antibiotic?
A) Domagk
B) Ehrlich
C) Fleming
D) Waksman
E) Ehrlich and Waksman
Selective Toxicity
A drug that kills harmful microbes without damaging the host
B) antisense nucleic acids.
Antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are
A) aminoglycosides.
B) antisense nucleic acids.
C) macrolides.
D) beta-lactams.
E) nucleic acid analogs.
D) both susceptibility and MIC
The Etest determines which of the following?
A) susceptibility
B) MBC
C) MIC
D) both susceptibility and MIC
E) both MBC and MIC
C. their activity against cell walls
Which of the following is NOT a criterion by which all antimicrobial agents can be evaluated?
A) their spectrum of action
B) their efficacy
C) their activity against cell walls
D) their route of administration
E) their safety
E) both cycloserine and vancomycin
Which of the following interferes with cell wall synthesis by blocking alanine bridge formation?
A) beta-lactams
B) cycloserine
C) bacitracin
D) vancomycin
E) both cycloserine and vancomycin
C) preventing virus attachment.
Antimicrobial sugar analogs are effective for
A) preventing bacterial protein synthesis.
B) preventing cell membrane synthesis.
C) preventing virus attachment.
D) preventing nucleic acid synthesis.
E) blocking a metabolic pathway.
B. lack of turbidity
Which of the following is a measurement associated with the broth dilution test?
A) the zone of inhibition
B) lack of turbidity
C) cell lysis
D) lack of turbidity and zone of inhibition
E) presence of turbidity and cell lysis
D. brain
) Infection of the __________ would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs.
A) heart
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) brain
E) colon
E) Candida albicans and Clostridium difficile
Answer: E
Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes?
A) Mycobacterium
B) Candida albicans
C) Clostridium difficile
D) both Mycobacterium and Clostridium difficile
E) Candida albicans and Clostridium difficile
C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.
The antimicrobials called quinolones act by
A) disrupting cytoplasmic membranes.
B) inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.
D) inhibiting a metabolic pathway.
E) inhibiting protein synthesis.
D) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes
Amphotericin B is an antifungal drug that
A) inhibits protein synthesis.
B) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.
C) blocks a metabolic pathway.
D) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes.
E) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
The mechanism of action of the antibiotic vancomycin is
A) inhibition of protein synthesis.
B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway.
E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes
A. protein synthesis
The tetracyclines interfere with
A) protein synthesis.
B) cell wall synthesis.
C) cell membrane component synthesis.
D) nucleic acid synthesis.
E) folic acid synthesis.
D) inhibit metabolic pathways.
Trimethoprim is an example of antimicrobials that
A) disrupt cytoplasmic membranes.
B) inhibit cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
D) inhibit metabolic pathways.
E) inhibit protein synthesis.
A) inhibition of protein synthesis.
The mechanism of action of erythromycin is
A) inhibition of protein synthesis.
B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway.
E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes.
B) inhibit cell wall synthesis.
Methicillin is an example of the beta-lactam class of drugs that
A) disrupt cytoplasmic membranes.
B) inhibit cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
D) inhibit metabolic pathways.
E) inhibit protein synthesis.
D) nucleic acid synthesis.
Ribavirin is an antiviral that interferes with
A) protein synthesis.
B) cell wall synthesis.
C) cell membrane component synthesis.
D) nucleic acid synthesis.
E) viral attachment.
D. disrupts cytoplasmic membranes
The antimicrobial polymyxin
A) inhibits protein synthesis.
B) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.
C) blocks a metabolic pathway.
D) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes.
E) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
A) inhibition of metabolic pathways.
The mechanism of action of sulfonamides is
A) inhibition of metabolic pathways.
B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
D) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes.
E) inhibition of protein synthesis.
false
Paul Erhlich coined the term antibiotics for the "magic bullet" antimicrobials he pursued
true
Antisense nucleic acids are designed to have no side effects against humans.
false
Beta-lactam drugs act by inhibiting formation of the cytoplasmic membrane.
false
Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this process.
true
Many antimicrobial drugs that affect the cytoplasmic membrane are used only externally because they can be toxic to humans.
true
Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell.
false
The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria enables many antimicrobial drugs to enter the cell more easily.
false
If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was bactericidal.
true
Brain and spinal cord infections are difficult to treat because most antimicrobial drugs cannot diffuse out of the blood into these organs.
true
Organs that are commonly affected by drug toxicity include the kidneys and the liver
chemotherapeutic
Any drug that acts against a disease is called a(n) __________ agent.
toxicity
Selective __________ means that a given antimicrobial agent is more toxic to a pathogen than to the host being treated.
analogs
Nucleotide or nucleoside __________are antimicrobial agents that mimic the chemical structure of DNA building blocks.
drug
A broad-spectrum __________ is effective against a wide variety of pathogens.
Superinfections
Secondary infections that result from the killing of the normal microbiota are called __________.
antagonism
Competition between beneficial microbes and potential pathogens is called microbial __________.
bacteriostatic
A(n) __________ concentration of a drug is one at which microbes survive but are not able to grow and reproduce.
extrachromosomal
R-plasmids are __________ pieces of DNA that promote horizontal transfer of genes among bacteria and contribute to the spread of antimicrobial resistance.
cross
Some bacteria develop resistance to groups of drugs because the drugs are all structurally similar to each other; this is a phenomenon known as __________ resistance. 
resistance
Second-generation drugs are semisynthetic drugs developed to combat __________ against an existing drug.
antagonistic
Drugs that slow down bacterial growth would be __________ to penicillin.
topical

External infections can be treated by __________ administration, in which a drug is applied directly to the site of infection.

Pleomorphic bacteria
vary in size and shape.
Gram(-): Rickettsiae and Chlamydiae (Giemsa)
palisades
Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?
gram negative
Which of the following is NOT associated with Corynebacterium?
cytoplamic membrane
What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?
Endospores
can be produced when nutrients are scarce.
Bergey's Manual contains
classification schemes for prokaryotes.


Subscribe to receive free email updates:

0 Response to "SOAL MIKROBIOLOGI LEVEL DASAR"

Posting Komentar

Langganan: Posting Komentar (Atom)